Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 07:03
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Meta buys a nuclear power plant (more or less) - TechCrunch
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Sci-fi action-RPG Hell is Us gets PC demo out today on Steam - Eurogamer
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.